2014年4月30日星期三

Guide de formation plus récente de Oracle 1Z0-025

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-025
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Backup and Recovery)
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.10 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.13 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.19 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.20 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-521
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Order Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify three correct statements about cascading attributes. (Choose three)
A. Enable Quit code OM_Header_to _line_Cascade.
B. Enable the key profile option OM: sales order form: Cascade Header changes to the line.
C. The cascading attributes feature is applicable for user interface, but not for an API (Process order)
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint will allows updates to other
lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the profile OM: sales order form Cascade
Header change to line.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 ACME has offices in various countries and its customers and supports are based around the globe.
Given that the addresses are formatted in each country, how would you setup the system to handle this
situation?
A. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive key Flexfield.
B. Ser up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive field
D. Ser up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.4 Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptance. (Choose three)
A. Action attribute - Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptance
B. An implicit acceptance request set ha two concurrent request:
1. Generate Pre-billing Acceptance program for pre-billing, implicit acceptance
2) Revenue contingency Analyzer for post-billing implicit acceptance.
C. Execution of concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptance.
D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the order import correction.
E. An acceptance comment field is available on order header level (Order information/other tab) of the
sales order form.
F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship
confirmation date and expiration days.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.5 An order has five lines with line status of staged/pick confirmed.
There is no record on the delivery tab in the shipping transaction from for this order.
What could be the possible solution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.
C. Auto create delivery from the pick release form.
D. Auto create delivery from the delivery transaction form.
E. Auto create delivery from the shipping transaction form.
Answer: E

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NO.6 Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at _________.
A. The Entity Level
B. The Subinventory Level
C. The operating Unit Level
D. The Item master inventory level
E. The Inventory organization level
Answer: E

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NO.7 The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types. Identify five valid item types? (Choose five)
A. Ship Only
B. Order Only
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM change Order
H. OM blanket Header
Answer: B,C,D,G,H

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NO.8 A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales order with distributor
keys trokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)
A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions
Answer: A,B,E,G

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NO.9 Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)
A. Accrual is valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.
B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using
only Basic pricing.
E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for
use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing
engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.10 ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using configurator, which makes it initial for
configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting the all options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The item sub inventory report output contains _______. (Choose three)
A. EOQ
B. Source type
C. Locator control
D. Focus forecast
E. Fixed Lot multiple
F. Min-max information
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.12 Identify three correct statements regarding the credit card encryption features? (Choose three)
A. Credit type is displayed as card brand.
B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.
C. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access applications
modules.
D. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access set up options.
E. The main idea behind the credit card security code and credit encryption is the make the credit card
and bank account information more centralized across the application and hence more secure.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.13 Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP base on collection data. (Choose
four)
A. Define price lists
B. Define ATP rules
C. Setup stock locations
D. Setup transit lead time
E. Set up pricing modifiers
F. Select the ATP item attribute
G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise
Answer: B,D,F,G

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NO.14 Which option identifies the requirements to ship confirm a sale order line?
A. The item attribute is shippable and shipping is an activity in the line work flow.
B. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is picked and shipping is an identity to the lines workflow.
C. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Booked, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
D. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Entered, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Awaiting, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three)
A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.
B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.
D. The system parameter OM Employee for self service order has been changed to an OM system
parameter with the same name.
E. The system parameter name OM employee for self service order in single OM system parameter which
ha not changed to an OM profile.
F. The profile OM employee for self service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has
been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship order created by
external users.
Answer: A,C,F

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-519
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Inventory Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)
A. Itispossible to copy items across item master organizations.
B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for ail items in different organizations.
C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.
D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or
organization level.
E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other
organizations while transacting on an item.
F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or
organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Which two functional areas have default category sets? (Choose two.)
A. Planning, Engineering, Costing
B. Purchasing, Payables, Inventory
C. Inventory, Purchasing, Bill of Materials
D. Order Management, Inventory, Purchasing
E. Inventory, Bill of Materials, Work in Process
F. Planning, Order Management, General Ledger
G. Order Management, Inventory, Work in Process
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Yourclient has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All Items are
manufacturedinone operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating
units. On an exception basis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different
operating units.
All transfers between operating units are at the shipping organization's standard cost plus a transfer
charge percentage.
Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory
organization to correctly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit.
(Choose three.)
A. Define an Intercompany Price List.
B. Define the correct Unit of Measure conversions for Dual UOM.
C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.
D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.
E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.
F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.
G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for ail inventory organizations in each
operatingunit.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.4 You are moving items from locator A to locator B within the same Inventory organization. Which two
types of inventory transactions are required? (Choose two.)
A. Move Order
B. Locator transfer
C. Subinventory transfer
D. WIP component Issue
E. Miscellaneous Receipt
F. WIP assembly completion
G. Interorganization transfer direct
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 ABCCompanyuses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1.Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions.
Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C

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NO.6 Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information IS
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots.Expired lots______.
A. Canbe reserved
B. Arenot allowed to do subinventory transfer
C. Arenot included in Inventory valuation reports
D. Cannotbe transacted and included in on-hand quantities
E. Arenot included in cycle and physical counting adjustments
F. Arenot considered as on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning
Answer: F

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NO.8 XYZ Is a Chemicalmanufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a
single production batch.
100 kilos of itemAmanufactured from a single batch has a single expiration date. However, the purity of
item A varies as follows:
Category 1: 95%
Category 2: 85%
Category 3: 50%
From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories asco products.
B. Enable lot control for Item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with serial
numbers.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three statements are true about ABC analysis.? (Choose three,)
A. theABC classisan Item attribute.
B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.
C. anABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.
D. ABC classes can be used to groupItems for planning purposes.
E. ABC classes can be used toidentifythe value groupings to which your Items belong.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)
A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.
B. The items have a nonreservable material status.
C. TheInventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.
D. TheInventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.
E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the
customer would like toviewthe total number of pendingtransactionsin one form.
Whichform would provide this Information?
A. Pending Status
B. View MaterialTransactions
C. FindPendingTransactions
D. Transaction Open Interface
E. InventoryAccountingPeriod
Answer: E

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NO.12 What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?
A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions
B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM
C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM
D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class
E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)
A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss%ofthe cycle count header.
B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss%ofthe Class.
C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub
inventory.
D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expensesubinventories for which quantities
aretracked).
E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardlessof thetolerance
levels
F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the
tolerance at the cycle count header level
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.14 What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for Inventory Items using the
Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?
A. Itemscosted only
B. Itemswith on-hand quantity only
C. Eitheritems with on-hand quantity or items costed
D. Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-519   certification 1Z0-519

NO.15 Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose three.)
A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand source.
B. For on-hand Inventory supply, thereisonly one type of reservation called high-level reservation.
C. For on-hand inventory supply, thereisonly one type of reservation called low-level reservation.
D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot
beimportedfrom third-party applications.
E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and
represents a guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demandsource.
F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or,
Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.
G. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,
account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or,
Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not
negative.
Answer: A,E,F

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-450
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Application Express 3.2: Developing Web Applications)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 The Interactive Report is displayed in Exhibit 2Exhibit 2 .?
Which combination of three actions would need to take place to create the interactive report?
A. Create an Interactive Report region to show the list of EMPLOYEES and PRODUCTS based on the
Customer ID.
B. Create an Interactive Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS,
EMPLOYEES, PRODUCTSand SALEStable.
C. Create an SQL Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS
andSALES tables only.
D. Create a filter on Customer FIRST_NAME and LAST_NAME.
E. Create a Control Break on Sales Representative.
F. Concatenate FIRST_NAME and LASTJYAME for both CUSTOMERS and EMPLOYEES in the query.
Answer: E

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NO.2 There are four departments listed as radio group, appearing one below the otherina form (View Exhibit
A). You want to edit the item attributes so that they appear as shown in Exhibit B
(horizontally, next to each other). Which action would you take to satisfy this requirement?
Exhibit A
A. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to No and set "Begin on New Field" attribute to
Yes.
B. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to Yes and set "Begin on New field" attribute to
Yes.
C. Change "Begin on new Line ±a ttri bu t e o f r ad i o g r oup t o N o and se t " Beg i n on N e w fi e l d " a ttri bu t e t o N o .
D. Edit the List of Values section for the item. Change the "Number of Columns" attribute to the number of
columns that should be displayed horizontally.
E. Edit the List of Values In Shared Components. Specify the number of columns that you want the List of
Values to span.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your application includes a standard tab set TSl with two tabs. You want the tabs to show up only in
page 1 but not in page 2. Which actions achieve the stated requirement?
A. Edit the tab definition. In the Tab Also Current for Pages field, specify the page number for which the
tab is to be rendered.
B. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current pageExpression 1" for Condition Type and then specify page 1 in
the "Expression 1* field. Repeat this process for the other tab.
C. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current pageisNOT in Expression 1" for Condition Type and then specify
the page number for which the tab is to render in the "Expression 1" field.
D. Change the region template on the page where the tabs should not be rendered.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-527
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle CRM On Demand Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 Sales managers want you to build a report that allows them to view revenue totals by product category
and industry for each sales representative and select different years to filter the data. Which of the report
views described below would best meet their needs?
A. pie chart view with Owner selected for the chart and fiscal year selected for the legend.
B. A pivot table view with Owner in the Sections section and Fiscal Year In the Pages section.
C. A table views with Fiscal Year In the first column position and a filter on the owner column
D. Pivot table view with Fiscal Year in the Sections section and Owner in the Pages section.
E. A vertical bar chart view with Owner on the vertical axis and Fiscal Year on the horizontal axis.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An account manager needs to be able to have Read only access to the Opportunity records created by
the sales team, which are associated to his accounts. However, he reported that while he can see an
Opportunity related Information section on his Account Detail page, he sees an Access Denied error
instead of a list of Opportunity records. What is the likely problem?
A. The Has Access role setting Is not selected for Opportunity records.
B. The default Access Profile does not have at least Read/Edit access for Opportunity related information.
C. The Can Read All Records role setting Is not selected for Opportunity records.
D. The default Access Profile does not have Inherit Primary access for Opportunity related Information,
E. The Can Read All Records role setting is not selected for Account records.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have been asked to set up the sales quota information for the Individual sales reps in your region
where is this information entered?
A. The Forecast Definition page
B. The Role Management wizard
C. The Territory Details page
D. The User Detail page
E. The Opportunity Page Layout page
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your company uses a custom list of Industries to classify your accounts, but the CRM Industry field type
is set to pick list (read only) on the Account Field Setup page. You need to have the custom Industry
names appear in the Industry field pick list on the Account detail page. As the Administrator, how do you
resolve this issue?
A. Add a new Industry field and assign it the Pick list type; then edit the pick list
B. Change the field type of the default Industry field to an editable pick list.
C. Change the display name of an unused field with an editable pick list
D. Go to Data Rules & Assignment and modify the Industry Definitions.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company wants to implement a policy that employees should only use the CRM on Demand
application when they are in the company office. What is the best way to implement this policy in the
application?
A. Navigate to the Company Profile page and change the company Authentication Type to Single-Sign on
Only.
B. Monitor the Sign-In Audit to identify users that do not conform to the policy and Inactivate their user
credentials.
C. Use the Company Administration > Security Settings page to enter the specific IP address ranges for
the company network.
D. Change the sign-in page for user authentications to a page behind the company firewall.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-527   1Z0-527   1Z0-527 examen   1Z0-527

NO.6 What is the first step in customizing a layout for the Account Lookup Window?
A. Navigate to the Account Search Layout1
B. Click the My Setup link
C. Navigate to the Layout Wizard for Related Lists
D. Navigate to the Page Layout Wizard
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-527   certification 1Z0-527   1Z0-527 examen

NO.7 By default, how is progress toward sales quota targets tracked in CRM on Demand?
A. On the Pipeline Dashboard
B. On the User Profile page
C. On the Forecast Detail page
D. On the Opportunity Detail page
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-527   1Z0-527   1Z0-527 examen

NO.8 Your company's Sales department is contemplating the use of a custom object to track information
related to a new record type called "Orders". As the system administrator, you're responsible for making
sure that the Sales department is aware of the limitations associated with the use of custom objects.
Select two application areas not compatible with custom objects.
A. Analytics
B. Forecasting
C. Books of Business
D. Assignment Manager
E. Web Services
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 You have a requirement to set up an Expenses object. This object will be used often by marketing and
sales users and you need to create a set of lists to appear on their Expenses home pages. The marketing
users will want lists that search on an Expense Category pick list field and the sales users will want lists
that search on an Expense Date field. You decided you will use a Custom Object for the Expenses object.
What recommended best practice should you keep in mind when setting up the fields for the new
Expenses object?
A. Create a new Expense Date field with a Field Type of Date/Time so that your lists can query correctly
for different locales.
B. Select the Required check boxes at the field level for both the Expense Date and Expense Category
fields so all users have to fill in these values.
C. Rename Indexed fields to use for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists run
faster.
D. Deselect the Copy Enabled check box for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists
run faster.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about Workflow rules?
A. You can select only one record type, with up to three trigger events, for each Workflow rule.
B. You can select only one record type and one trigger event for each Workflow rule.
C. A Workflow rule must have a Condition so the appropriate records can be identified on which to
execute the actions.
D. Once you save a Workflow rule, you cannot change its record type, trigger event or condition.
E. Once you save a Workflow rule, you cannot change its record type or trigger event, but you can change
its condition.
Answer: B, E

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NO.11 Sales management wants sales representatives to only have access to a few of the prebuilt reports
available in the application. You have been asked to make this subset of reports available to the users
with the Sales Rep role. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Create a custom Reports Homepage layout and deselect the prebuilt reports that you do not want to
appear on the page. Then, edit the role to associate the new layout.
B. Create a custom Web applet for the Reports Homepage to provide links to only those prebuilt reports
that you want to expose for the role- Then, edit the role to give access to the Web applet,
C. Deselect the View Prebuilt Analyses privilege for the role. Open the prebuilt reports In Answers and
save them In a Company Wide Shared folder. Then, give folder access to the role.
D. Rename a Custom Object to Reports and add the appropriate prebuilt reports as child objects. Then,
remove access to the standard Reports tab for the role.
Answer: B

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NO.12 You're helping your VP Sales decide how often Sales Reps should submit their forecast. What are the
forecast frequency options in CRM on Demand?
A. Weekly
B. Bi-weekly
C. Monthly
D. Bi-monthly
E. Quarterly
Answer: C

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NO.13 As a Regional Sales Manager, you would like to create a list of all Accounts you access on a dally
basis. In the "Search In" drop-down list of the "New Account List" page, you select "All Records I own."
What records will be returned every time you run this list? Select the three correct answers.
A. All records you own
B. All records shared with you by the owner through the team feature
C. All records you or your subordinates own
D. All records where you or your subordinates are on the team
E. All records shared with you through the group assignment feature
Answer: A, B, E

Oracle   1Z0-527   1Z0-527

NO.14 You created an Account Assignment Rule and added users to the Team Assignment section on the Rule
Detail page. When the rule is triggered and an Account record is assigned, which two actions occur?
A. All users on the team are given the same access level as the assigned record owner to the Account,
and Its related Contact and Opportunity records.
B. All users on the team are also assigned to the territory specified in the Assign To Territory field for the
rule.
C. Unless you selected the Include Team Assignment check box for the rule, no users are assigned to the
team.
D. Only the users that meet the rule criteria are assigned to the team.
E. Each user on the team is given the specified access level to the Account, and its related Contact and
Opportunity records.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Once a forecast is set up, it typically does not need to be updated unless certain events take place
which two events may require an update of the forecast definition.?
A. Creating a new forecast report In Analytics
B. Creating a new access profile for a role including in the forecast
C. Deactivating employees with the roles Included In the forecast
D. Changing the expiration date of the forecast alert message
E. Changing the reporting structure
Answer: B, C

Oracle examen   1Z0-527   1Z0-527   1Z0-527 examen

NO.16 As a CRM administrator, you're evaluating different data sharing strategies to implement in your
organization. Your main driver is to allow record owners to select which users to give access to their data.
What piece of functionality best meets your requirement?
A. Group Sharing
B. Books of business
C. Workflows
D. Team Sharing
Answer: D

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NO.17 Bill Williams is a manager of a sales team His role has the Can Read All Records setting enabled for
Accounts. His role also gives him read only default access and Read/Edit owner access to accounts.
Jane Jones is a sales representative who reports to Bill Williams. Her role gives her Read only default
access and Read/Edit/Delete owner access to accounts. Jane owns the ACE Industries account record in
CRM on Demand. Manager Visibility is enabled.
Jane changes the owner on the ACE Industries account to Frank Ford, a sales representative who does
not report to Bill Williams, but to a sales manager on another team. What kind of access does Bill Williams
have to the ACE Industries Record?
A. Read-Only
B. Read/Edit/Delete
C. Read/Edit
D. Read/Create
E. No access
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have a requirement to set up an Expenses object- This object will be used often by marketing and
sales users and you need to create a set of lists to appear on their Expenses home pages. The marketing
users will want lists that search on an Expense Category pick list field and the sales users will want lists
that search on an Expense Date field. You decided you will use a Custom Object for the Expenses object.
What recommended best practice should you keep in mind when setting up the fields for the new
Expenses object?
A. Create a new Expense Date field with a Field Type of Date/Time so that your lists can query correctly
for different locales.
B. Select the Required check boxes at the field level for both the Expense Date and Expense Category
fields so all users have to fill in these values.
C. Rename indexed fields to use for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists run
faster.
D. Deselect the copy enabled check box for the expense date and expense category fields so your lists
run faster.
Answer: A

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NO.19 One of the Service Coordinators In your department is not receiving emails when new service requests
are assigned to her. The system administrator that built the service request assignment rules is on
vacation so you are helping troubleshoot this issue. What is the most likely cause of this issue?A. The
Email Notification workflow action is inactive.
B. The Service Request record in question is missing Information in key fields.
C. The workflow responsible for the assignment is inactive.
D. The email notifications are sent to the user's manager.
E. The Send Email Notification check box Is not selected for the assignment rule.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-527 examen   1Z0-527 examen   1Z0-527 examen   1Z0-527

NO.20 Select the true statement regarding book structure.
A. Your book structure should closely reflect how your company organizes its data.
B. Your book structure should always reflect your company's corporate hierarchy.
C. Your book structure should reflect your company's geographical distribution.
D. Your book structure should reflect Financial Cost Centers for financial reporting.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-536
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Exadata 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which resource plan is evaluated first by the I/O Resource Manager?
A. Storage plan
B. Category plan
C. Inter-database plan
D. Intra-database plan
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement properly describes potential allocation for a grid disk?
A. A grid disk must use all of a cell disk.
B. A grid disk can only use portions of a cell disk across all cells.
C. A grid disk can use portions of a cell disk on a subset of cells.
D. A grid disk can span multiple Exadata Storage Server ceils.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your customer has designated a number of database objects to be kept persistently in the Exadata
Smart Flash Cache. What happens if the total size of these objects is greater than 80% of the size of the
available Exadata Smart Flash Cache?
A. Nothing
B. Exadata Smart Flash Cache expands the allocation to hold the objects.
C. Not all objects will be stored in Exadata Smart Flash Cache.
D. Overall performance is increased as more objects fit into Exadata Smart Flash Cache.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer wants to use Hybrid Columnar Compression to get maximum compression on their data.
Which option represents a best practice for achieving this goal?
A. Load compressed files with Direct Path loading
B. Sort incoming data on a column with a low cardinality
C. Use DBFS and external flies to load the data
D. Use Data Pump to load data
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which types of data are most likely to be cached In the Exadata SmartFlash Cache?
A. Results of random reads.
B. Results of table scans.
C. Write to a mirror
D. Redo data
E. All data is cached In the Flash Cache
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does the role attribute of a DB plan Indicate?
A. The role specified for the category
B. The role specified for the user
C. The role specified In a Data Guard environment
D. The role specified for the application
Answer: C

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NO.7 What model of the Exadata Database Machine come with 3 Infiniband switches?
A. Quarter Rack of X2-2
B. Half Rack of X2-2
C. Full Rack of X2-2
D. All models
Answer: C (B,C)

NO.8 Which statement would you make about sharing I/O resources in an Exadata environment?
A. You can manage workloads within a database with Database Resource Manager.
B. You can manage workloads across multiple databases with Database Resource Manager.
C. You can manage workloads within a database with 10 Resource Manager.
D. You cannot manage workloads across multiple databases.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do you back up the software used on an Exadata storage cell?
A. You use RMAN.
B. You back up the software files using an operating system method.
C. You do a complete copy of their system storage area.
D. You do not need to backup this software, as there is an automated recovery mechanism built into each
cell.
Answer: D

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NO.10 If a hard drive is removed from a storage cell, what must you do?
A. Nothing.
B. The cell must be rebooted.
C. You must alter ASM to alert It
D. You must recreate any grid disks that use the drive.
Answer: A

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2014年4月29日星期二

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Code d'Examen: C2090-541
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9.7 DBA for Linux UNIX and Windows)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button
Given the INSERT statements shown below:
INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (1 ,'M' 54); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (2, 'F', 38); INSERT INTO
applicant VALUES (3, 'M', 21); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (4, 'F', 91); INSERT INTO applicant
VALUES (5, 'C', 50); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (6, 'C', 70); INSERT INTO applicant VALUES (7, 'C',
95);
How many rows will be successfully inserted?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which command will reorg all indexes for a table named TABA?
A. REORG TABLEtaba INDEXES INPLACE
B. REORG TABLEtaba AND INDEXES ALL
C. REORG INDEXES FORtaba
D. REORG INDEXES ALL FOR TABLEtaba
Answer: D

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NO.3 Given the DDL shown below:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (coll SMALLINT );
CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT coll FROMtabl WHERE coll > 25 ;
CREATE VIEW V2 AS SELECT COI1 FROM v1 WITH CASCADED CHECK
OPTION
CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT coll FROM v2 WHERE coll < 100 ;
Which statement will fail?
A. INSERT INTO v2 VALUES (35)
B. INSERT INTO v1 VALUES (5)
C. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (25)
D. INSERT INTO v3 VALUES (200)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is correct about informational constraints?
A. An informational constraint can be used by the SQL compiler to improve the access to data and
query performance.
B. The database manager uses an informational constraint to enforce the uniqueness of the key
during changes to the columns of the unique constraint.
C. An informational constraint is a column or combination of columns that has the same properties
as a unique constraint.
D. An informational constraint specifies that every row that is inserted or updated in the table must
conform to the definition of the table.
Answer: A

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5. Click the Exhibit button.
IBM 000-541: Practice Exam
In the exhibit, where would the authentication of the supplied userid and password from a remote
client take place?
A. AIX operating system
B. LDAP Server
C. Kerberos Server
D. "MyPlugin.so" GSS-API plug-in
Answer: B

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6. Which two plug-in types does the DB2 database system provide? (Choose two.)
A. Group retrieval
B. Kerberos authentication
C. Server authentication
D. Encryption authentication
Answer: A,C

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7. What are three authorization categories in DB2? (Choose three.)
A. System-level
B. Database-level
C. Network-level
D. Object-level
E. Instance-level
Answer: A,B,D

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8. What are three system and database level authorizations available with DB2? (Choose three.)
A. SYSMON
B. SYSMNT
C. DBCTRL
D. SYS ADM
E. DBADM
Answer: A,D,E

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9. A DBA wants to use Label Based Access Control (LBAC) to protect Individual rows in a table.
Which data type must be used to create a column to hold the necessary LBAC security data?
A. SYSPR0C.DB2LBACU\BEL
B. SYSPR0C.DB2SECURITYU\BEL
C. SYSIBM.DB2LBACLABEL
D. SYSIBM.DB2SECURITYLABEL
Answer: D

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10. Which administrative authority is needed to run the audit stored procedures and table
functions such as the AUDIT_DELIM_EXTRACT stored procedure?
A. DBADM
B. SECADM
C. SQLADM
D. SYS ADM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: A2090-550
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache
and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end
database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 You have setup solidDB Universal Cache such that you have a table DBA.ORG in the
solidDB
front-end, being mirrored to a back-end database. After some time, you notice that the
subscription is Inactive and you try to start Mirroring (Continuous). The subscription state
remains
Inactive and the Event Log shows that the structure of table DBA.ORG has changed. What is
the
recommended course of action?
A. In solidDB, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
B. In the backend database, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
C. In solidDB, change the table definition to what it was previously; then restart the
subscription.
D. In the Management Console, use the 'Update table definition' option, for the source in the
Table
Mappings area; then restart the subscription.
Answer: D

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NO.4 To execute the admin command "status", what is the correct syntax?
A. solsql -e "COMMAND 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
B. solsql -f "ADMIN STATUS 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
C. solcon "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
D. solcon -e "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
Answer: D

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NO.5 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege
would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.7 To set the transaction log retention space size for solidDB Universal Cache in the
solidDB
configuration file (solid.ini), which parameter is used?
A. [LogReader]
MaxLogSize
B. [Com]
ReadBufSize
C. [Hotstandby]
MaxMemLogSize
D. [indexFile]
CacheSize
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the correct setup topology when deploying IBM solidDB Universal Cache in
conjunction
with IBM solidDB High Availability (HotStandby) functionality?
A. CDC for solidDB instances are running on both the Primary node and on the Secondary
node,
each CDC instance locally connecting to one solidDB server.
B. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to both
Primary and Secondary solidDB servers.
C. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to the
Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed using Advanced Replication.
D. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the Primary node, locally connecting to the
Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed by transparent failover.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two methods for generating a trace file containing database statement
executions
occurring in the solidDB server? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SQL tracing within the solidDB server.
B. Enable ODBC tracing within the solidDB ODBC driver.
C. Enable ODBC tracing within the ODBC Driver Manager.
D. Enable JDBC tracing within the solidDB JDBC driver.
E. Enable JDBC tracing within the JDBC Driver Manager.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end
database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within
another script.
Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. &
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At
configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the
solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two are directly visible in solidDB server-side SQL Tracing? (Choose two.)
A. longest lasting statements in duration order
B. timestamps of statement preparation
C. timestamps of individual fetch operations
D. timestamps of individual rpc_session operations.
E. list of statements currently under execution
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 To set up solidDB in a standalone, HotStandby or Universal Cache configuration,
where can the
configuration be performed?
A. The configuration is performed from the command line using the solid command with
suitable
option settings and values.
B. The configuration needs to be set in a solid.ini file.
C. The configurations can be set up by using the solsql tool and the operating system
services file.
D. The standalone configuration is set in the solid.ini file while the HotStandby and Universal
Cache configuration is set using the sqlcon tool.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A solidDB disk-based database instance has been optimally running for six months and
starts to
experience major degradation in performance. Upon executing an overall DB status report
using ADMIN
COMMAND "status", it is noted that the value for index writes after last merge is at
20945876. Why would this be a probable cause of the performance degradation?
A. A large value for this counter signifies that the creation of indices, after a large batch insert
process, has been halted leading to excessive memory usage which can cause serious
performance issues.
B. A large value for this counter signifies that a large number of transactions are being
checkpointed which can cause serious performance issues.
C. A large value for this counter signifies that the multi-versioning storage tree is not being
flushed
to disk due to a long running transaction which can cause serious performance issues.
D. A large value for this counter signifies that a transaction performing a merge-join is
utilizing a
large amount of memory causing potential process paging/swapping leading to serious
performance issues.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are two effective ways to increase the throughput of replication between the
solidDB in-
memory cache and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Add a summarization column to the source.
B. Use multiple subscriptions instead of just one.
C. Update the mirror_commit_after_max_transactions parameter to a higher value.
D. Ensure that the conflict resolution mechanism is set to "source".
E. Use only the Mirror (Continuous) form of replication.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-
incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which software components must be installed to deploy IBM solidDB Universal Cache
and provide
access to data residing in an IBM DB2 database?
A. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2,
IBM
InfoSphere CDC Access Server, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
B. IBM solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM Universal Cache for DB2,IBM InfoSphere CDC Replication
Center,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
C. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC Access
Server,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
D. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2,
IBM
InfoSphere CDC Replication Center, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.20 When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true
about
transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)
A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).
B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).
C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).
D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).
E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).
Answer: A,B

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